SSB Political Science PGT 2023 Questions with Answers

Here are the previous year’s papers of SSB Political Science PGT 2023 Questions with Answers that will be helpful for the political science students who are preparing for the PGT examination for the next term.

1. Traditional approach to study Political Science gives emphasis to:

(A) Facts

(B) Values

(C) Objectivity

(D) Precision

Ans: (B) Values

2. Who is accepted as intellectual God Father of Behaviouralism?

(A) Robert Dahl

(B) David Easton

(C) Charles E. Merriam

(D) Harold Lasswell

Ans: (C) Charles E. Merriam

3.”Liberty is the opposite of over government ‘- is said by:

(A) J.S. Mill

(B) T.H. Green

(C) H.J. Laski

(D) Seeley

Ans: (D) Seeley

4. Who said: ‘Political liberty without economic equality is a myth’:

(A) G D. H. Cole

(B) John Locke

(C) J.S. Mill

(D) M.K. Gandhi

Ans: (A) G D. H. Cole

5. From the given list of books and authors, identify the wrong pair:

(A) Principles of Social and Political Theory: Nozick

(B) A Theory of Justice: John Rawls

(C) Das Capital: Karl Marx

(D) New Aspects of Politics: Charles E. Merriam

Ans: (A) Principles of Social and Political Theory: Nozick

SSB Political Science PGT 2024 Questions with Answers

6. Who is considered to be a Utopian Socialist?

(A) Feuerbach

(B) Robert Owen

(C) Rousseau

(D) Friedrich Engels

Ans: (B) Robert Owen

7. How does radical feminism understand ‘Patriarchy’?

(A) A system of cooperation

(B) A system of oppression

(C) A form of patriotism

(D) Monogamous family

Ans: (B) A system of oppression

8. Identify the underlying principle behind affirmative action?

(A) Establishing formal equality by law

(B) Eliminating cumulative effects of past inequalities

(C) Equal distribution of wealth

(D) Promoting equal opportunities and competition on equal terms

Ans: (B) Eliminating cumulative effects of past inequalities

9. What does ‘Decline of Political Theory’ mean?

(A) Decline of normative political theory

(B) Decline of empirical theory

(C) End of ideology

(D) Decline of modernity

Ans: (A) Decline of normative political theory

10. The author of ‘The Power Elite’ is:

(A) Pareto (B) Mosca

(C) Max Weber (D) C. Wright Mill

Ans: (D) C. Wright Mill

11. What are ‘forms’ according to Plato?

(A) Intelligible and unchanging objects, accessible to the mind but not to the senses

(B) Intelligible and unchanging objects, accessible to the senses but not to the mind

(C) Shape of ideal society

(D) Shape of ideal state

Ans: (A) Intelligible and unchanging objects, accessible to the mind but not to the senses

12. What according to Aristotle is the nature of man?

(A) Social

(B) Political

(C) Cultural

(D) Religious

Ans: (B) Political

13. What was the most essential part of human behaviour that Machiavelli considered to

understand politics?

(A) Empirical Theory

(B) Empirical Thinking

(C) Empirical Reality

(D) Empirical Reasoning

Ans: (C) Empirical Reality

14. Who is known as a Commonsense Philosopher during the Seventeenth Century?

(A) Hobbes (B) Locke

(C) Rousseau (D) Francis Bacon

Ans: (B) Locke

15. Read the following statements and identify the wrong one:

(a) Machiavelli suggested power politics is the means and authoritarian absolute

State is the end.

(b) J.J. Rousseau was known as of Father of Liberalism’.

(c) Hobbes’ main concern was to argue that effective government, whatever its

form, must have absolute authority.

(A) Only ‘a’ (B) Only ‘b’ (C) Only ‘c’ (D) both ‘b’ and ‘c’

Ans: (D) both ‘b’ and ‘c’

16. Which philosopher greatly influenced Karl Marx’s thought?

(A) Hobbes

(B) Kant

(C) Hegel

(D) Rousseau

Ans: (C) Hegel

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17. Robert Nozick bases his theory of Justice on:

(A). Desire

(B) Need

(C) Merit

(D) Entitlement

Ans: (D) Entitlement

18. Dialectic method was used for the first time by whom?

(A) Plato

(B) Socrates

(C) Hegel

(D) Marx

Ans: (B) Socrates

19. Which one below is not related to John Rawl’s Theory of Justice?

(A) Veil of ignorance

(B) Lexical Priority

(C) Lockean Provision

(D) Original Position

Ans: (C) Lockean Provision

20. Which among the following books deals with Marx’s theory of ‘Alienation’?

(A) Communist Manifesto

(B) Capital

(C) Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts

(D) Theses on Feuerbach

Ans: (C) Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts

23. Who is respected as Father of New Public Administration?

(A) Fred Riggs

(B) Dwight Waldo

(C) Frank Marini

(D) C.I. Barnard

Ans: (A) Fred Riggs

24. Herbert Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of:

(A) Logical Positivism

(B) Decision Making

(C) Bounded Rationality

(D) Satisfying

Ans: (A) Logical Positivism

25. How many principles of management were propounded by Henry Fayol?

(A) 8

(B) 10

(c) 12

(D) 14

Ans: (D) 14

26. Among the following thinkers, who is the odd one in terms of their specialisation?

(A) Maslow

(B) Taylor

(C) Herzberg

(D) Likert

Ans: (B) Taylor

27. In which type of recruitment, the system for higher position is open, for all qualified candidates?

(A) Ordinary recruitment

(B) Passive recruitment

(C) Direct recruitment

(D) Recruitment by promotion

Ans: (D) Recruitment by promotion

28. Which principle is appropriate for promotion in Civil Service:

(A) Merit and Seniority

(B) Merit and Educational Qualification

(C) Merit and Experience

(D) Experience and Seniority

Ans: (A) Merit and Seniority

29. Among the following which one is not related to Public Policy types?

(A) Assertive

(B) Regulatory

(C) Restictive

(D) Facilitating

Ans: (A) Assertive

30. Public Services (Qualification for Recruitment) Committee was headed by:

(A) V. T Krishnamachari

(B) Y.K. Alagh

(C) A.R Mudaliar

(D) Satish Chandra

Ans: (C) A.R Mudaliar

31. Who is known for his association with Systems Approach:

(A) Auguste Comte

(B) David Held

(C) David Easton

(D) Robert Dahl

Ans: (C) David Easton

32. What does authority imply?

(A) Compliance through a moral obligation on the part of the ruled to obey

(B) Compliance through coercion of the ruled to obey

(C) Exercise of power as divine right of rulers

(D) Exercise of power unrestricted by law

Ans: (D) Exercise of power unrestricted by law

33. Which one below is not source of legitimacy?

(A) Ideology

(B) Coercion

(C) Structure

(D) Personal Qualities

Ans: (B) Coercion

32. Which approach considered Social Stratification as a necessary structure in each Society?

(A) Marxist

(B) Elitist

(C) Functionalist

(D) System’s approach

Ans: (C) Functionalist

33. Who defined Political Participation as the involvement of the members of Society in the

decision-making process?

(A) Almond and Powell

(B) David Easton

(C) Lasswell

(D) Sidney Verba

Ans: (A) Almond and Powell

34. Who said:’Political Culture is the set of attitudes, beliefs and sentiments, which give

order and meaning to a political process and which provide the underlying assumptions

and rules that govern behaviour in the political systems?

(A) Sydney Verba

(B) Lucian Pye

(C) Comte

(D) V.O. Key

Ans: (B) Lucian Pye

35. Identify the improper match below:

(A) M. N. Srinivas: Sanskritisation

(B) Almond: Structural Functionalism

(C) Strauss: Positivism

(D) Max Weber: Class struggle

Ans: (D) Max Weber: Class struggle

36. Which concept below is close to the idea of Political change, like Political integration,

Political differentiation, Political secularization, etc.?

(A) Political socialisation

(B) Political participation

(C) Political modernisation

D) Political mobilization

Ans: (C) Political modernisation

37. Identify the wrong pair:

(A) Hans Morgenthau: Political Realism

(B) Richard Snyder: Game Theory

(C) E. H. Carr: Twenty Years of Crisis

(D) Hedley Bull: Anarchical Society

Ans: (B) Richard Snyder: Game Theory

38. Name the Author: Study of International Relations:

(A) E.H. Carr

(B) Langsam

(C) Quincy Wright

(D) Peter Calvocoressi

Ans: (C) Quincy Wright

39. Identify the intangible element of power from the list given below?

(A) Technology

(B) Ideology

(C) Natural resources

(D) Population

Ans: (B) Ideology

40. System by which states attempt to prevent war is known as:

(A) Alliance

(B) Balance of Power

(C) Collective Security

(D) Diplomacy

Ans: (C) Collective Security

41. The First NAM Conference was held at Belgrade in 1961 and Belgrade was privileged to

host NAM for the second time. Identify the year from the choices:

(A) 1976

(B) 1986

(C) 1989

(D) 1992

Ans: (A) 1976

42. India hosts G-20 Summit 2023. Which Country will host the next Summit?

(A) Brazil

(B) South Africa

(C) Japan

(D) Italy

Ans: (B) South Africa

43. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty was open for signature in the year:

(A) 1978

(B) 1989

(C) 1995

(D) 1996

Ans: (D) 1996

44. Indo-Soviet Treaty of Friendship and Cooperation was signed during:

(A) Dec 1970

(B) April l971

(C) July 1971

(D) August 1971

Ans: (D) August 1971

45. Name the Chairperson of UN General Assembly Commission to draft Human Rights:

(A) Pen-Chen Chang

(B) Elanor Roosevelt

(c) Charles Malik

(D) Hans J Morgenthau

Ans: (B) Elanor Roosevelt

46. The large-scale Afro-Asian conference during April, 1955 was held at:

(A) Bandung

(B) New Delhi

(C) Colombo

(D) Bangkok

Ans: (A) Bandung

47. Where are the ideological bases of the Indian Constitution written in a summary fashion?

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Directive Principles of State Policy

(C) Preamble

(D) Fundamental Duties

Ans: (B) Directive Principles of State Policy

48. Who said: The Constitution of India is a Social Document?

(A) Ivor Jennings

(B) Granville Austin

(C) B.R. Ambedkar

(D) B.N. Rau

Ans: (B) Granville Austin

49. The IXth Schedule to the Constitution was inserted by:

(A) Parliamentary Resolution

(B) presidential proclamation

(C) First Amendment Act

(D) Second Amendment Act

Ans: (C) First Amendment Act

50. Identify the wrong pair in the list given below:

(A) First Information and Broadcasting Minister of India: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(B) Chairman of the State Reorganization Commission: Asaf Alli

(C) Basic Structure Doctrine: Keshav Ananda Bharti Case

(D) Insertion of Article 21A in the Constitution: 86th Constitution Amendment Act

Ans: (B) Chairman of the State Reorganization Commission: Asaf Alli

51. Which Article of the Constitution mentions ‘Duties of the Prime Minister’?

(A) Article 74

(B) Article 75

(C) Article 78

(D) Article 86

Ans: (C) Article 78

52. Which Fundamental Right was described as the heart and soul of the Constitution by

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

(A) Right to Equality

(B) Right to Freedom

(C) Right against Exploitation

(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Ans: (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

53. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles is to establish:

(A) Social democracy

(B) Social and Economic democracy

(C) Political democracy

(D) Party less democracy

Ans: (B) Social and Economic democracy

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54. Which of the following was held to be basic structure of the Constitution in S.R Bommai vs. Union of India?

(A) Secularism

(B) Liberalism

(C) Human Dignity

(D) Socialism

Ans: (A) Secularism

55. Which amendment of the Constitution put a sealing on the total number of members of the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at 15% the strength of the Lok Sabha?

(A) 90^th

(B) 91st

(C) 92^th

(D) 93^th

Ans: (B) 91st

56. In the given list, which party is the National Party?

(A) Nationalist Congress Party

(B) Trinamool Congress Party

(C) Aam Admi Party

(D) Janata Dal (United)

Ans: (C) Aam Admi Party

57. Article 263 which provides Inter-State Council as an instrument for cooperation, coordination and evolution of common policies, was founded in the year:

(A) 1952

(B) 1967

(c) 1977

(D) 1990

Ans: (D) 1990

58. Read the following statements and identify which one is fully correct:

(a) The First Mid-term poll for Lok Sabha was held in 1971.

(b) Sri Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy is the only President to be elected unopposed.

(c) The Dinesh Goswami Committee on electoral reforms recommended the use of EVM in the

elections.

(A) Only ‘a’

(B) Only ‘b’

(C) Only’b’and’c’

(D) Only ‘a and ‘b’

Ans: (D) Only ‘a and ‘b’

59. Justice Sarkaria Commission was set up by whose Government to examine the relationship and balance of power between the centre and States in India?

(A) Charansingh

(B) Indira Gandhi

(C) Rajiv Gandhi

(D) V.P. Singh

Ans: (C) Rajiv Gandhi

60. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that the decisions of the Supreme Court are binding on all courts of the country?

(A) Article 138

(B) Article 140

(C) Article 141

(D) Article 142

Ans: (C) Article 141

61. What is ‘Eurocentrism‘ in Comparative politics?

(A) It argues that Europe is at the centre of the world

(B) It believes that Europe should rule the world

(C) It presumes the superiority and universal applicability of Western institutions and values

(D) It is about the unification of European political systems

Ans: (A) It argues that Europe is at the centre of the world

62. There are two types of Sovereign States: Unitary and Federal. Out of 193 member states of the UN, how many states are unitary in nature?

(A) 101

(B) 123

(C) 146

(D) 166

Ans: (D) 166

63. The US Constitution is the first written one. From which year the US Constitution became effective?

(A) 1783

(B) 1787

(C) 1789

(D) 1792

Ans: (C) 1789

64. Read the following statements and identify. Which one is fully correct:

(a) US Federal System is known as Strong centre with strong States.

(b) Senatorial curtesy is a long standing unwritten, unofficial and non-binding constitutional convention in the US.

(c) The best-known power of the US Supreme Court is the doctrine of judicial review established in the case of Marbury vs. Madison (1803).

(A) Only ‘a’

(B) Only ‘b’

(C) Only ‘c’

(D) ‘a’, ‘b’, and ‘c’

Ans: (D) a’, ‘b’, and ‘c’

65. During whose government in the UK, the Citizens’ Charter was introduced?

(A) Margaret Thatcher

(B) Tonny Blair

(C) John Major

(D) Borris Johnson

Ans: (C) John Major

66. Currently British Conservative Party is in power and the Labour Party is the major opposition party. After them which political party enjoys third position in British House of Commons?

(A) Green Party

(B) Scottish National Party

(C) Liberal Democrats

(D) Democratic Unionist Party

Ans: (B) Scottish National Party

67. Read the statements and identify the wrong one, if any:

(a) The Government of PRC is a Unitary, Marrdst-Leninist one party auttroritarian system.

(b) The State Council in PRC is an executive body.

(c) Deng era-initiated market socialism in China

(A) Only ‘a’

(B) Only ‘b’

(C) All are correct

(D) All are wrong

Ans: (C) All are correct

68. In respect of Swiss Federal Council, which one is incorrect observation?

(A) It is a plural executive

(B) It has six members in the Council

(C) The origin of the Council owes to the Constitution of 1848

(D) It is the Federal Cabinet of the Confederation

Ans: (B) It has six members in the Council

69. ‘Landsgemeinde’ is related to which country?

(A) USA

(B) UK

(C) Switzerland

(D) China

Ans: (C) Switzerland

70. ‘Filibustering is a means to in USA.

(A) Attract the attention of the members of the legislature

(B) Delay a vote on bill

(C) Demand for revision of bill

(D) Move an amendment of the Constitution

Ans: (B) Delay a vote on the bill

71. Bihar and Odisha province was separated from the Bengal Presidency in:

(A) 1905

(B) 1911

(C) 1912

(D) 1919

Ans: (C) 1912

72. After becoming a separate province, Odisha had a Legislature having:

(A) 56 members

(B) 60members

(C) 64 members

(D) 91 members

Ans: (C) 64 members

73. The first Congress government in British Odisha was headed by:

(A) Krushna Chandra Gijapati

(B) H.K. Mahtab

(C) N.K. Choudhury

(D) Biswanath Das

Ans: (D) Biswanath Das

74. How many times has Odisha been under President’s Rule?

(A) Fourth time

(B) Five times

(C) Six times

(D) Seven times

Ans: (C) Six times

75. Odisha is known for active regional party formation. Identify the wrong mention of the year of formation of such parties:

(A) JanaCongress: 1966

(B) UtkalCongress:1969

(C) B.J.D:1998

(D) Odisha Ganaparishad:2000

Ans: (D) Odisha Ganaparishad:2000

76. Identify the correct sequence of Conformative Acts done in the State of Odisha for the three-tier

Panchayat Raj System under 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:

(A) 1994,1995,1997

(B) 1995,1996,1997

(C) 1995,1996,1998

(D) 1994,1996,1998

Ans: (C) 1995,1996,1998

77. The B.J.D- B.J.P coalition Government functioned during:

(A) 1999-2008

(B) 2000-2007

(C) 2000-2008

(D) 2000-2009

Ans: (D) 2000-2009

78. Odisha has 314 Panchayat Samitis (Blocks) out which the number of Tribal Blocks is:

(A) 118

(B) 119

(C) 120

(D) 121

Ans: (B) 119

79. In which year, the High Court of Odisha was inaugurated by Justice H.L. Kania Chief Justice of the Federal Court of India?

(A) 1937

(B) 1947

(C) 1948

(D) 1949

Ans: (C) 1948

80. Which political coalition formed the Government in Odisha after the midterm election of 1971?

(A) Swatanta-JanaCongress

(B) Utkal Congress- Swatantra

(C)Swatantra- PSP- Jana Congress

(D) Swatantra – Utkal Congress- Jharkhand Party

Ans: (B) Utkal Congress- Swatantra

81. Read the statements and identify the incorrect one/ones:

(a) Kautilya’s Theory of State was to promote the moral and material happiness and

welfare of its people.

(b) The Mauryan Empire was divided into four provinces with Pataliputra as the capital. The head of the provincial administration was the Viceroy.

(c) Kautilya’s Theory there was no explicit of the social contract.

(A) Only ‘c’

(BI Only ‘b’ and ‘c’

(C) Only ‘a and ‘b’

(D) All are correct

Ans: (D) All are correct

82. Identify the incorrect option provided in relation to Raja Rammohan Roy:

(A) Father of the Indian Renaissance

(B) Critical of Atmiya Sabha

(C) A Scholar of comparative religion

(D) Stood for freedom of the press

Ans: (B) Critical of Atmiya Sabha

83. Who observed that religious toleration is crucial for the growth of democracy?

(A) Raja Rammohan Roy

(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(C) Swami Dayananda

(D) Vivekananda

Ans: (A) Raja Rammohan Roy

84. Identify the philosopher who lived during the period when liberalism was at the crossroads?

(A) Raja Rammohan Roy

(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) B.R. Ambedkar

Ans: (A) Raja Rammohan Roy

85. Who introduced extremist national sentiments in Congress?

(A) Naoroji

(B) Aurobindo

(C) B.G Tilak

(D) M.K. Gandhi

Ans: (B) Aurobindo

86. Identify the wrong mention with regard to books and authors:

(A) Gitarahasya: B. G Tilak

(B) My Explanation on Truth: M. K. Gandhi

(C) Annihilation of Caste: B. R. Ambedkar

(D) The Life Divine: Aurobindo Ghosh

Ans: (B) My Explanation on Truth: M. K. Gandhi

87. ‘Hind Swaraj’ by Gandhi is famous for which one ofthe following?

(A) Constructive social work

(B) Non-cooperation movement

(C) Passive resistance

(D) Critic of Western civilization

Ans: (D) Critic of Western civilization

88. Read the following statements and identify the correct one/ones:

(a) Nehruvian idea of Socialism was influenced by Fabianism.

1. b) POVERTY AND UN-BNTISH RULE IN INDIA was authored by the Grand Oldman

of India

(c) B.R Ambedkar was a crusader for social justice.

(A) Only’a’

(B) Only ‘b’

(C) Only ‘a’ and ‘c’

(D) All are correct

Ans: (D) All are correct

89. In which year Gandhi’s Book on Hind Swaraj (Indian Home Rule) was published?

(A) 1908

(B) 1909

(C) 1915

(D) 1920

Ans: (B) 1909

90. Swami Vivekananda attended World Parliament of Religions and intoduced Hinduism to

America. In which year and at which venue he did it?

(A) 1892-Chicago

(B) 1892-Philadelphia

(C) 1893-Chicago

(D) 1893- Boston

Ans: (C) 1893-Chicago

91. According to Donald Stones, the four Ps of Development Administration do not include:

(A) Priorities

(B) Plans

(C) Projects

(D) Programs

Ans: (A) Priorities

92. Development Administration has meaning for the developing world Identify the thinker who connected third world administration with development:

(A) Henry Fayol

(B) Dwright waldo

(C) F.W. Riggs

(D) Montgomery

Ans: (C) F.W. Riggs

93. Ecology of Administration means:

(A) Social Setting to which administration relates

(B) Administration of environment

(C) Structure of Administration

(D) Law for protection of environment

Ans: (A) Social Setting to which administration relates

94. Planning Commission of India as a non-statutory body was established in the year:

(A) 1949

(B) 1950

(C) 1951

(D) 1952

Ans: (B) 1950

95. The period known as ‘PLAN HOLIDAY’ is:

(A) 1965-69

(B) 1966-69

(c) 1967-69

(D) 1989-92

Ans: (B) 1966-69

96. Green Revolution initiated in 1960s intended:

(A) Self-reliant economy

(B) Boost for agriculture production to contain imports

(C) initiate era of industialization

(D) None of these

Ans: (B) Boost for agriculture production to contain imports

97. Article 243 ZD relates to:

(A) Regular election for PR Bodies

(B) System of Audit of PRs

(C) District Planning Committee

(D) Composition of Zilla Parishad

Ans: (C) District Planning Committee

98. The National Development Council was establislred in:

(A) August 1952

(B) September, 1952

(C) January 1953

(D) August 1953

Ans: (A) August 1952

99. NlTl Ayog replaced Planning Commission in the year:

(A) 2014

(B) 2015

(C) 2016

(D) 2017

Ans: (B) 2015

100. Which is not a feature of Good Governance?

(A) Consensus oriented

(B) Responsiveness

(C) Free and fair elections

(D) Transparency

Ans: (C) Free and fair elections

20 Important MCQs on Public Policy and Administration in India